Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 20.06.2025 19:55
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Can you explain the meaning of "mint condition" in relation to antiques or collectibles?
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Why do I like to eat my own cum?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.